w_ockham ([info]w_ockham) wrote in [info]koine,
@ 2007-05-17 19:27:00
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ascii greei
Help! I'm trying to render an old book thing into html, but my Greek alphabet is not up to scratch. I've set up a page here

http://uk.geocities.com/frege@btinternet.com/logicalform/temp.htm

showing the original text with what I think are the roman equivalents of the greek quotations, but would be awfully grateful if someone could take a look in case of any horrid mistakes.

Thanks

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[info]napoleonofnerds
2007-05-17 10:31 pm UTC (link)
to A panti to B' (umarxei) - The second "to" should be "toi" and "umarxei" should be "huparchei"

to A tini to B - second to should be ton.

we have to A tini to B - second to should be toi

anagke uparxein - should read huparchein

uparxei ec anagkes - huparchei ex anagkes

giorimoteroi gnorimoteroi

omoloi homoioi

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[info]catholic_heart
2007-05-18 02:17 am UTC (link)
to A panti to B' (umarxei) should be huparxei. Also, I don't know if there is a better way of transliterating the omega of the second definite article in that phrase. As it is it makes them both seem to be nominative case, when the second "to" really is dative, with the omega iota subscript.

As I'm doing this I realize napolean has actually already made all the necessary corrections. Just remember all the vowels with rough breathing marks should have an "h" in front of them, and he is using toi for the omega iota subscript, which I suppose makes the most sense. But it definitely cannot remain as "to," which indicates a neuter nominative case as opposed to the dative which it really is. Good luck!

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[info]napoleonofnerds
2007-05-18 02:22 am UTC (link)
That's how the Dominicans taught me to deal with the subscript. Not ideal, perhaps, but there isn't anything better I've ever seen. That at least tells you how to say it when it's written in Roman characters.

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[info]catholic_heart
2007-05-18 02:29 am UTC (link)
yeah, that definitely makes the most sense. I wish there was some way to place a long mark over the o in other cases where the omega is used, just to differentiate it from the omicron. I wonder if just using a w would be better? For instance, σωφρον being written as swphron instead of sophron? Hmm, looking at it it doesn't look so great. Oh well.

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[info]napoleonofnerds
2007-05-18 04:50 pm UTC (link)
I think the convention exists so that a reader can at least get close to the pronounciation of the word, which putting a consonant where there should be a vowel would thwart. Imagine some poor lector getting up to read a passage that describes, say, Paul and Barnabas' wanderings around Asia Minor - trying to say some of those cities and regions is bad enough without people messing with the letters more than necessary.

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Many thanks
[info]w_ockham
2007-05-18 07:26 am UTC (link)
That's great. My knowledge of Greek being limited to Greek menus. The text in question is Lukasiewicz on Aristotle and particularly on Alexander of Aphrodisias, a 3rd century Greek commentator on Aristotle's syllogistic. Lukasiewicz was the last of that generation of scholars who expected that their readers would be fluent in Latin and Greek.

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Re: Many thanks
[info]napoleonofnerds
2007-05-18 04:51 pm UTC (link)
No problem.

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